Q07: DOES THE WIFE HAVE A SIMILAR RIGHT TO DETERMINE IF HER HUSBAND IS GUILTY OF ADULTERY? If not why not? This is in connection with your article on the Law of Jealousies.

Lope, I just read your article, "The SECRET OF THE LAW OF JEALOUSIES, Now Revealed! SOTAH -- A Wife Suspected of Adultery" 

The focus here is on the wife suspected of committing adultery and on the husbands right in law to determine through use of a priestly ritual, whether this suspicion is correct. There are penalties for the wife if she is guilty.

The question I would ask is this: Does the wife have a similar right to determine if her husband is guilty of adultery, thereby causing his belly to shrivel and his thighs to shrivel? If not why not. Have you explored this. And if you have not, why not?

-- Garnett Weir

Lope Columna: Hi, Mr. Weir. Number 5:31 said: "The husband will be free of guilt, but that woman will bear the consequences of her guilt." At the time when the man is free from iniquity, the water proves his wife; but when the man is not free from iniquity, the water does not prove his wife.

God said through the Prophet Hosea: 

• I will not punish your daughters when they fornicate, nor your wives when they commit adultery. For the men themselves go aside with harlots, and they sacrifice with temple prostitutes. The people who do not understand are thrown down. (Hos 4:14 MKJV)

God said through Hosea: If you are scrupulous with yourselves, the water will prove your wives; otherwise the water will not prove your wives. 

This Law of Jealousies will be applied to both men and women in the coming spiritual redemption or salvation of Mankind. But, in the human level of marriage relationship, it is applied more to the wives. This is because men are allowed by God to have several wives, as long as they are all virgins. This polygamous marriage is not applicable to women, only to men.

Garnett Weir: Lope, I wonder how the wives managed to hold their husbands to account before Hosea, because Hosea came some 800 years after the commandment in numbers. Can you imagine 800 years of uncertainty before the "word of the Lord" came.

You commented "men are allowed by God to have several wives, as long as they are all virgins." I presume that you mean as long as they were virgins before marriage, because after marriage they should have lost it to their husbands. If not they could take him to the priest and file a complaint for non- performance. Then , he would have to drink bitter water, causing his belly to swell and his thighs to shrivel.

Lope, you have opened my understanding. I now understand why it is that men now only have one wife. According to you it is simply because of the scarcity of virginity. If men were now allowed more than one wife, the scarcity of virgins would leave most men wifeless. What an understanding God, to have amended the rules, to take account of negative changes in the population of virgins.

You have your work cut out for you, Lope.

Lope Columna: Thanks, Mr. Weir. You have said it all right.

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